[Buddha-l] Pali and Asoka

[Jayarava]

I have been browsing through Cardona and Jains 'Indo-aryan Languages' and Salomon's 'Indian Epigraphy'... 

It seems that the Pāli language of the Tipitaka most resembles the prakrit of the Asokan inscription at Girnār (in modern day Gujurat), although it makes sporadic use of Magadhisms. That is to say that Pāli as we know it is essentially a western Indian dialect. This raises the issue of why the western dialect was used for the scriptures when everyone involved in them, from the Buddha down to Asoka, having lived in Magadha most likely spoke an eastern dialect. (Doesn't it?)

In Asoka's heartland the inscriptions are all in Magadhi (ie the prakrit of the Magadha region). However with the death of Asoka and the collapse of the Mauryan dynasty, inscriptions in this language cease - apparently they cease abruptly and completely. Eventually inscriptions are found in the western dialect as far afield as Orissa and Amarāvati suggesting that the western dialect spread from it's original homeland and became a lingua franca "by the last two centuries BCE". Presumably this had something to do with filling the power vacuum left by the Mauryans?

If the texts were transmitted to Sri Lanka during Asoka's lifetime why weren't they in the language that he most likely spoke? Gujurat was a bit of a back water at this time if the history books are anything to go by. Asoka inscribed his words in Magadha and at the frontiers of his kingdom, but not much in between - Gujurat was at the edge of his realm.

Seems to me there are three possibilities:

1. The texts were originally remembered in Magadhi (or at least an eastern dialect of some description), but some Buddhists (perhaps after a schism or due to missionary activity) went to Girnār and translated the texts into the local dialect. The texts were then transmitted from Girnār to Sri Lanka during Asoka's time.

2. The texts were transmitted to Sri Lanka in Magadhi during the life of Asoka, but later translated into the western dialect in Sri Lanka.

3. The texts were translated from Magadhi into the western dialect when it became the lingua franca of Northern India. The history of this is far from clear to me, but definitely some time after Asoka died. Perhaps a generation or two - how long does it take for a language to change? The texts were subsequently transmitted to Sri Lanka in Pāli.

I know of no evidence to support option 1. and I gather Frauwallner thought Mathura was the likely launching point. 

Option 2 seems pretty unlikely - Sri Lanka is a long way from Magadha, with South Indian languages intervening. The Sinhalese script diverged from Brahmi by the 3rd century BCE suggesting that they were not part of the mainstream even then. I can't think of why they would suddenly change the language of the texts to another foreign language. They seem unlikely to want to change the language at all, but if they did it would seem that Sinhalese was a more likely candidate for them to choose. And again I know of no evidence to suggest that such a translation took place in Sri Lanka. 

Which leaves option 3. even though it conflicts with the traditional narratives of the history. The texts were transmitted some time after the death of Asoka - I'm guessing at least two generations - sometime in the early to mid 2nd century BCE.

Is this news to anyone but me?

There was apparently a major revision of the Sri Lankan Canon in the 12th century based on Burmese grammars - heavily influenced by Sanskrit grammarians. Could this account for a option 2. scenario?

Is there a 4th option to explain the information?

Best wishes
Jayarava