[Buddha-l] Mere mereness

Richard P Hayes rhayes at unm.edu
Wed Aug 30 13:55:52 MDT 2006


Fools Crow wrote:

>Actually, the Latin origin of "mere" appears to have meant something  
>like "undiluted".  Used precisely, in English from Middle English  
>until well into the last century is meant "solely" or "no more nor  
>better than what is specified".

Although "mere" is not etymologically related to Sanskrit "maatra", my 
impression is that the two words function in much the same way. In 
Sanskrit "maatra" at the end of a compound means having something as 
its full measure. So X-maatra means "nothing more nor less than X." I 
suspect that "mere" can function in the same way. As C.S. Lewis 
explains his usage, it sounds as though he takes "mere Christianity" to 
mean something like nothing more nor less than Christianity. 



------------------------
Richard Hayes
Department of Philosophy
University of New Mexico

Office: 525 Humanities
Phone:  277-8232


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